Contributed by: filbert Monday, September 21 2009 @ 12:54 PM CST
Does the Commerce Clause (Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the U.S. Constitution[*1] ) render the entire rest of the Constitution, including the Ninth and Tenth Amendments, null and void?
If not, as Coyote Blog[*2] asks, what economic behavior--if any--does not fall under the jurisdiction of the Commerce Clause?
The question is important, because there are Constitutional lawyers who believe[*3] that a large chunk of the Democrats' plans to revamp the American health care system--including and especially the Federal mandate that individuals purchase health insurance--is unconstitutional.
Or, is that even important any more?
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